I recently listened to Gary Brecka on Rogan. I'm a physician, and to my ear, he is a professional salesman, but amateur scientist. There were a few nuggets of truth in his pitch, but these were far outweighed by claims that are speculative, anecdotal, or frankly false. He seems to have a limited understanding of lipid metabolism, cellular respiration, and genetics. I'd be interested in hearing your take, or even having him on your podcast to discuss/debate his claims. Thanks.
Hi Peter, Long time listener, first time caller. “Outlive” is the best two books I’ve read on longevity. My first read was focused on diabetes risk, insulin resistance et al. It confirmed and tweaked what I learned from your podcast in recent years and helped get my HbA1c from 5.9 to 5.1. Thanks! Then I had an ischemic stroke and I read it again with a different perspective but with a similar result. Adjusting again and working on it. Thanks in advance! I also revisited the Tom Dayspring podcast series where he mentions “regression” of Atherosclerosis “in some people”. In “Outlive” you also mention the book “Atlas of Atherosclerosis Progression and Regression” that was always on your desk. I understand and agree that the rational for a long timeline on Atherosclerosis risk is validated, in part, by its “ratchet effect” progression, but yet there are these repeated mentions of regression. What constitutes regression in Atherosclerosis? How can it be targeted? I’m not yet 60, but I have my centenarian decathlon plan and I’m executing it. I plan to die with Atherosclerosis, if not from it, but if so, not until the last leg of the tenth event. Any additional margin on this particular horseman currently breathing down my neck would be much appreciated! Keep up the great work!
After devouring your book I have bumped into a fundamental question on which I am hoping you will shed some light…When you refer to HRT, are you advocating “replacing” to a premenopausal level? A practitioner has suggested that the dosing target for HRT for a post-menaupausal patient is the “normal” range for a post-menopausal woman. This is confusing to me as I have previously assumed that “replacing” meant restoring to pre-menopausal levels. Can you please clarify?